test4actual

Exam  :  IBM 000-976

      Title    :  IBM i 6.1 Administration

       Version :  DEMO

http://www.test4actual.com/000-976.html

1. A customer has installed a POWER6+ machine to handle some workload from their current POWER5+ machine.  The POWER5+ system is running V5R4M5. On the POWER6+ system, they have loaded IBM i 6.1 SLIC media into the alternate IPL device and IPLed to DST, and selected the alternate install device with the save media.  The IPL fails.

Which of following describes the problem?

A. The CD and the tape are different LIC levels

B. The tape is missing PTFs required for POWER6+

C. The V5R4 interoperability PTFs for i6.1 are missing.

D. The tape drive must be configured as the Alternate IPL device in order to IPL V5R4.

Answer: A

2. What happens when a journal receiver created with MNGRCV(*USER) reaches its maximum size?

A. A new receiver is created in the job's current library.

B. Database writes are prohibited and jobs receive error messages.

C. All new journal entries are placed in the QDFTJRN journal receiver.

D. A new receiver is created in the QSYS library for new journal entries.

Answer: B

3. An administrator notices that certain long-running CPU intensive batch jobs cause numerous short-running batch jobs to have excessive wait times.

Changing batch job priorities is unacceptable since the numerous short batch jobs consume all the CPU needed by the long-running jobs.

What would permit the short batch jobs access to the CPU while permitting the long-running batch jobs to run at an equal priority?

A. Shorten the wait time in the batch job class.

B. Shorten the time slice value in the batch job class.

C. Raise the maximum number of active jobs in the memory pool that runs batch jobs.

D. Use a subsystem routing entry to run the long-running batch jobs in a dedicated memory pool.

Answer: B

4. Users without *ALLOBJ authority create many IFS files using an SAP application and store them into the /SAP directory.

The company policy requires changing the IFS file authorities to READ ONLY for all users immediately after the file is created, even though the users are the owners of the IFS files.

How can this be accomplished?

A. Set the users authority to *R for the /SAP parent directory. The IFS newly created file will inherit this authority.

B. Set the users authority to *USE for the /SAP parent directory. The IFS newly created file will inherit this authority.

C. Start journaling for the /SAP directory. Write a program which uses the RCVJRNE command to detect file creation and set authority to company policy.

D. Write a program that uses the RCVOBJAUT command to detect the current file authorities and then uses the EDTOBJAUT command to implement the new policy.

Answer: C

5. How can the system administrator set the expiration date for a tape?

A. Use the command SETEXPDATE on the tape volume.

B. Use the EXPDATE parameter of the SAVxxx command.

C. Use the EXPDATE parameter of the INZTAP command.

D. Use the SETLIBEXP command with the external tape library.

Answer: B

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6. An system running IBM i 6.1 has a fibre attached IBM TS3500 (3584). Management has instituted a policy that any tape leaving the data center with application data must be encrypted.

Which of the following tape encryption modes is supported?

A. System Managed

B. Library Managed

C. Software Managed

D. Application Managed

Answer: B

7. Some of the master keys on a system have become corrupted and must be restored. Which of the following correctly describes the restore process?

A. Use the RSTMSTKEY command to retrieve the keys from a SAVSYS backup.

B. Run an abbreviated IBM i install. Change the install options to reload the master keys from backup media.

C. Run the RSTOBJ command for QUSRBRM/Q1AKEYFILE. Then use the Translate Master Key Store File command (TRNCKMKSF) with the *SAVRST option to translate the master key to the system.

D. Check that the Save/Restore master key matches to the value at the time the keys were saved. Use the Add Master Part and Set Master Key (SETMSTKEY) commands to set the *SAVRST master key if needed.

Answer: D

8. Due to a merger, a company is consolidating data centers. Each center has a Power Systems server running IBM i and a TS3200 with LTO-4 drives. Tapes are managed at both sites with BRMS using non-overlapping bar-codes. One site uses hardware encryption, the other does not.

An IBM TS3500 (3594) is being acquired to consolidate all tape support for both data centers. Management requires the following:

1) The new data center must be able to exchange tapes with the existing data centers during the migration and consolidation

2) The new tape library must have the fewest drives possible.

3) Human intervention must be minimal.

Which of the following solutions meet these requirements?

A. Define a tape library partition for each IBM i instance. Use library mode encryption on the partition for the system with encryption enabled.

B. Define a tape library partition shared by both IBM i instances. Use system mode encryption on the partition for the system with encryption enabled.

C. Define a tape library partition shared by both IBM i instances. Configure BRMS to use control application mode encryption in the tape library partition for the system with encryption enabled.

D. Define a tape library partition shared by both IBM i instances. Use library mode encryption with Barcode Encryption Policy (BEP) set to enable encryption to recognize tapes that must be encrypted.

Answer: C

9. Which of the following is the minimum requirement to configure RAID Hot Spare for SCSI disks on the load source IOA?

A. Have one non-configured disk unit of equal or larger size attached to the IOA

B. Have one configured disk unit of equal size attached to the IOA in a valid Load Source capable position

C. Have one non-configured disk unit of equal size attached to the IOA located in a valid Load Source capable position

D. Have one configured disk unit of equal size attached to the IOA and the IOA must be designated as the 'Alternate IPL Devices'

Answer: C

10. A system has 15 identical SCSI disks connected to a controller. The system has RAID-5 protection, and there are three RAID-5 parity sets containing 5 disks each.

After ending RAID, how can the system administrator reconfigure the parity sets in order to get the maximum available storage?

A. Select the option 'Start device parity with Hot Spare'.

B. First configure the ASPs and then start the parity protection.

C. Change the parity optimization level from Performance to Capacity using the iSeries Navigator.

D. Specify the desired parity sets number when the parity protection is started using the iSeries Navigator.

Answer: C

11. What happens when the system ASP reaches the threshold set in SST?

A. No new jobs may enter the active state.

B. All job queues are placed on hold status.

C. The system attention light is illuminated.

D. Messages are sent to the QSYSOPR message queue.

Answer: D

12. An independent ASP requires a reclaim storage. In addition to 'Available' which of the following is a state in which reclaim storage for an independent ASP will succeed?

A. Active

B. Failed

C. Varied On

D. Recovery Pending

Answer: B

13. Every Saturday night, BRMS is scheduled to perform a full system backup of a production IBM i partition and then IPL.  Due to time constraints for system availability, management has directed the administrator to eliminate the IPL and bring the system up immediately after the backup completes.  The administrator modified the BRMS system policy IPL controls to prevent the IPL from occurring.  However, after Saturday's backup, the system IPLs in spite of the change.

What is the cause of this unplanned IPL, and how can the problem be corrected?

A. The system value QIPLTYPE is set to perform an Unattended IPL.  Modify the system value appropriately.

B. The backup policy can override the system policy and start an IPL.  Change the appropriate backup policy parameters to defer to the system policy.

C. The backup policy can override the system policy and start an IPL.  Change the appropriate control group parameters to defer to the system policy.

D. The system policy IPL controls are dependent on the BRMS console monitor.  Start the BRMS console monitor and ensure the System Policy Control parameter is set to *YES.

Answer: B

14. An administrator has been asked to assist in defining a detailed recovery plan for objects in IFS directories that are journalled. The goal is to be able to completely reload the system with minimal intervention.

Which of the following represents the correct order to restore objects?

A. Journal receivers, IFS objects, journals

B. IFS objects, journals, journal receivers

C. Journal receivers, journals, IFS objects

D. Journals, journal receivers, IFS objects

Answer: D

15. An administrator must copy production data to a new system for high availability. How can System Reply Lists, System Values, Job and Subsystem Descriptions be restored from tape?

A. Restore the libraries QGPL and QUSRSYS.

B. Perform a Manual IPL to DST, select Change Install Options on the Install the Operation System display.

Select the Message Reply List, System information, Job and Subsystem Descriptions.

C. Perform a Manual IPL to DST, select Change Install Options on the Install the Operating System display.

Select the Restore option 1=Restore programs and language objects from current media set.

Select the Message Reply List, System information, Job and Subsystem Descriptions.

D. Perform a Manual IPL to DST, select Change Install Options on the Install the Operating System display.

Select the Restore option 4=Restore only language objects from a different media set using the current install device.

Select the Message Reply List, System information, Job and Subsystem Descriptions.

Answer: C

 

       Exam  :  IBM 000-975

      Title    :  IBM i6.1 Basic Operations

       Version :  DEMO

http://www.test4actual.com/000-975.html

1. Operations in a 24x7 shop has attempted to run the SAVSYSINF command rather than take the system down for a SAVSYS. The command fails with CPD37AD "Save file not found for PTF MF23400".

Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A. Save files for PTFs applied prior to the last SAVSYS have been cleared from the system.

B. PTFs were applied since the last SAVSYS but the save files were not copied to QGPL Library.

C. PTFs were applied since the last SAVSYS but they were applied from media rather than save files.

D. PTF MF23400 is marked defective and must be removed however the required save file is not present.

Answer: B

2. A user saved multiple objects in the library LIBNAME using the SAVOBJ command.  Which of the following commands will show the names of the objects that were unable to be saved?

A. DSPJOBLOG OUTPUT(*PRINT)

B. DSPMSG MSGW(QSYSOPR) OUTPUT(*PRINT)

C. DSPTAP DEV(TAPxx) DATA(*OBJERR) OUTPUT(*PRINT)

D. DSPLOG((1100 052009) (1300 052009)) OUTPUT(*PRINT)

Answer: A

3. A SAVLIB operation failed with the message CPF6772 - "Volume on device TAP01 can not be processed". Which of the following should be done to correct this?

A. Initialize the tape with the correct FILE parameter.

B. Initialize the tape with the correct NEWVOL parameter.

C. Change the command default on the SAVLIB command to use the correct LABEL parameter.

D. Use the GO BACKUP menu to set the backup to run at a time the tape drive is available.

Answer: B

4. What is one limitation of saving to save files?

A. The save file may not exceed 4 GB.

B. The save file can not be compressed.

C. The save file can only hold 2048 individual objects.

D. The save file can only contain objects from one library.

Answer: D

5. On an IBM i 6.1 system an operator needs to save all the of the files in library RPGWORK and restore them to a V5R3M5 system. 

Which of the following will accomplish the task?

A. SAVOBJ OBJ(*ALL) OBJTYPE(*FILE) LIB(RPGWORK) DEV(TAP03) RLS(V5R3M5)

B. SAVOBJ OBJ(*ALL) OBJTYPE(*FILE) LIB(RPGWORK) DEV(TAP03) RLS(V5R3M0)

C. SAVOBJ OBJ(*ALL) OBJTYPE(*FILE) LIB(RPGWORK) DEV(TAP03) TORLS(V5R3M5)

D. SAVOBJ OBJ(*ALL) OBJTYPE(*FILE) LIB(RPGWORK) DEV(TAP03) TGTRLS(V5R3M0)

Answer: D

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6. A user must restore libraries LIBA and LIBB.  LIBA contains logical files that are dependent on physical files in LIBB.  Both libraries were saved using a SAVLIB(*NONSYS) command.

Which of the following commands, or groups of commands, will complete the restore operation in one pass through the tape even though the physical files are restored after the logical files?

A. RSTLIB SAVLIB(LIBB LIBA) DEV(TAP01)

B. RSTLIB SAVLIB(LIBA LIBB) DEV(TAP01) DFRID(ABC)

C. RSTLIB SAVLIB(LIBA LIBB) DEV(TAP01) DFRID(ABC)

RMVDFRID DFRID(ABC)

D. RSTLIB SAVLIB(LIBA LIBB) DEV(TAP01) DFRID(ABC)

RSTDFROBJ DFRID(ABC)

Answer: D

7. A user saved the library LIBA in the save file QGPL/SAVFUSER, then saved the save file to external tape TAP01. How can the user restore library LIBA?

A. RSTLIB SAVLIB(LIBA) DEV(TAP01) SAVF(SAVFUSER)

B. RSTOBJ OBJ(SAVFUSER) SAVLIB(QGPL) DEV(TAP01)

RSTLIB SAVLIB(LIBA) DEV(*SAVF) SAVF(SAVFUSER)

C. RSTSAVF SAVLIB(QGPL) DEV(TAP01) SAVF(SAVFUSER)

RSTLIB SAVLIB(LIBA) DEV(*SAVF) SAVF(SAVFUSER)

D. RSTSAVFDTA SAVLIB(QGPL) DEV(TAP01) SAVF(SAVFUSER)

RSTLIB SAVLIB(LIBA) DEV(*SAVF) SAVF(SAVFUSER)

Answer: B

8. Under what conditions will a new password be checked against password validation rules?

A. When using the CHGPWD command

B. When using the CHGUSRPRF command

C. When the user profile is enabled

D. When the user signs onto the system

Answer: A

9. A pair of i 6.1 systems are using DDM to exhange data. DDM is configured to require valid user IDs and passwords for the connection to work. User profile DDMUSER is defined on each system for use by applications using DDM.

An operator is directed to set the password on the DDM target system to "DDMPW1."  The DDM server is named QDDMSVR on the target system.

After signing on with an administrative user profile, which of the following correctly describes how to set the DDMUSER password?

A. CHGUSRPRF USRPRF(DDMUSER) PASSWORD(DDMPW1)

B. CHGDDMATTR USRPRF(*SAME) PASSWORD(DDMPW1)

C. CHGDDMUSR SERVER(QDDMSRV) USRPRF(*SAME) PASSWORD(DDMPW1)

D. CHGSVRAUTE USRPRF(DDMUSER) SERVER(QDDMSRV) USRID(*SAME) PASSWORD(DDMPW1)

Answer: C

10. An operator changed a writer using the CHGWTR command and specified OPTION(*NORDYF).  When will the change take place?

A. When the writer is restarted

B. When the writer ends normally

C. When the current spooled file completes

D. When there are no spooled files ready to print

Answer: D

 

      Exam  :  IBM 000-529

      Title    :  IBM WebSphere ILOG JRules V7.0, Application Development

       Version :  DEMO

http://www.test4actual.com/000-529.html

1. Given the following BAL rule:

definitions

 set 'the plan' to a plan ;

if

 the type of 'the plan' is "Auto"

then

 print "Type is Auto";

The Rule Developer was asked to use a ruleset parameter verbalized as "the plan" of type Plan.

Which change, if any, needs to be performed on the rule?

A. The rule does not need to be changed.

B. Remove the definitions part of the rule.

C. Uncheck "Generate automatic variable" on the Plan BOM class.

D. Bind the variable 'the plan' to the ruleset parameter in the definitions part.

Answer: B

2. Given the following rules:

Rule 1:

if the status of the frequent flyer is Bronze

   and the loyalty years of the frequent flyer is greater than 2

then

   set the discount rate to 10%;

Rule 2:

if the status of the frequent flyer is Silver

   and the loyalty years of the frequent flyer is greater than 4

then

   set the discount rate to 15%;

Rule 3:

if the status of the frequent flyer is Gold

   and the loyalty years of the frequent flyer is greater than 4

then

   set the discount rate to 20%;

Rules with this pattern will be added to the task during runtime selection. The number of rules selected may vary from a few to a large number.

Which execution algorithm is the most optimized that could be applied to this ruletask?

A. Rule chaining is required so RetePlus mode should be selected.

B. Dynamic priorities are required so RetePlus mode should be selected.

C. Sequential mode should be selected since the rules use homogeneous binding.

D. Fastpath mode should be selected since the rules use homogeneous binding.

Answer: C

3. The Business Analyst's team in an insurance company is doing the rule discovery and analysis of the business policies. These policies govern business processes and are expressed using a business language with all its ambiguity. Business Rules are derived from business policy, expressed without ambiguity, and are actionable.

The following statement is a business policy which will not change in the future:

"The coverage has a type to uniquely identify it and has to define the dollar amount threshold the company will accept to reimburse. An insurance policy can have multiple different coverage depending on the customer."

How should this policy be implemented?

A. In a BRMS

B. In the data model

C. In a SQL Procedure

D. In the process flow

E. In the application code

F. In the Graphical User Interface

Answer: B

4. In a Wireless Telecom provider the Service Level Agreement (SLA) policy defines the following business policy:

"A customer service request must be brought to the attention of a supervisor if the request is not resolved within 4 hours".

Where should the policy be implemented?

A. In a BRMS

B. In a process flow

C. In the Data Model

D. In a SQL procedure

E. In the application code

F. In a Graphical User Interface

Answer: B

5. When creating a new Rule Project in Rule Studio, which folders are created by default to contain the different rule artifacts belonging to the project?

A. ruleset, ruleapp, xom, bom

B. rules, bom, queries, templates

C. rule packages, xom, bom, queries

D. ruleset, xom, b2x mapping, vocabulary

Answer: B

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6. The Rule Developer wants to organize the discovered rules into several Rule Projects using the same conceptual BOM.

Which approach will most effectively accomplish this?

A. Replicate the BOM in each Rule Project.

B. Consolidate all rules in a single Rule Project with the BOM.

C. Create a Rule Project containing the BOM and use dependencies with the others.

D. Create all Rule Projects in the same workspace; they will share the BOM by default.

Answer: C

7. The business users define three types of insurance policy: home, life, and car policy. The XML schema defines a unique policy with a Type attribute.

The Rule Developer needs to develop an efficient vocabulary to let business users write the rules.

Which action should the Rule Developer perform to make an efficient BOM design, identifying the three policies as distinct terms?

A. Define a rule set variable for each type of policy and initialize them at the beginning of the rule flow.

B. Add a BOM class for each policy type in the BOM entry and use the BOM to XOM tester to compare the type of policy.

C. Change the XML schema to define one complex type for each type of policy, then update the BOM entry using this schema.

D. Extend the XML complex type with Java classes for each type of policy, then define BOM entries using both the schema and the Java model.

Answer: B

8. The Business Analyst has discovered a large number of business rules. The object model and vocabulary is the same for all those rules. The Rule Developer wants to organize the structure of the rules to work on them independently and make them more manageable.

Which approach should be used to accomplish this?

A. Write the rules in several Rule Projects. Create a Rule Project containing the BOM and reference it from the others.

B. Write all the rules in a unique Rule Project. All the rules of a business rule application must be in a single Rule Project containing a single BOM.

C. Organize the rules into several Rule Projects in the same workspace. All Rule Projects created in the same Eclipse workspace share the BOM by default.

D. Organize the rules into several Rule Projects and replicate the BOM in each Rule Project. Any Rule Project has to have its own BOM because it is mandatory in the tool.

Answer: A

9. A ruleset is owned by two different teams: product management and marketing. The Rule Developer must use an industry standard defining a XML schema as the data model with at least 300 classes. Each team should have access to only their authorized elements of the ruleset and only the part of the vocabulary needed to write their rules.

To avoid an overcomplicated BOM, the Rule Developer wants to use JRules capabilities to expose only the necessary elements to the Rule Writer.

Which approach uses these capabilities?

A. 1. Design the BOM on top of the XSD.

2. Use the virtual element and the B2X layer to simplify the vocabulary.

3. Add categories to the rule project.

4. Assign category to each BOM element.

5. Use filter on category at each rule to expose only the necessary vocabulary.

B. 1. Design the BOM on top of the XSD.

2. Develop two BOM entries one for each team.

3. Use the virtual element and the B2X layer to simplify the vocabulary.

4. Add a category to the BOM to expose only the necessary vocabulary.

C. 1. Change the XSD to have only the complex type for the marketing and the product management.

2. Design the BOM on top of these new XSDs, one entry per XSD.

3. Write rules using the available vocabulary.

D. 1. Design a Java model wrapper around the XSD to access only elements relevant for the rules.

2. Build the BOM on top of this Java model.

3. Write rules using the available vocabulary.

Answer: A

10. A new business service is being designed using business rules deployed in a rule engine and the Rule Developer needs to design the XOM and expose the ruleset as a web service.

Which approach should the Rule Developer use?

A. Use a predefined WSDL developed by the enterprise architect group.

B. Develop a personal approach UML diagram and generate java classes as XOM.

C. Import an existing enterprise model or an industry standard as XOM to write the rule on.

D. Leverage the fact model built from the rule discovery and analysis activities to design a XOM relevant for the rules.

Answer: D

       Exam  :  IBM 000-171

      Title    :  IBM BPM Blueprint: WebSphere Lombardi Edition V7.1 Developm

       Version :  DEMO

http://www.test4actual.com/000-171.html

1. When the developer uses the Activity Wizard, what are control labels based on?

A. Variable names

B. Variable type names

C. Default text

D. Documentation tab

Answer: A

2. What is the proper way to add a parameter to a Java Integration Component?

A. Add a parameter to the Human Service.

B. Add a parameter to the General System Service.

C. Add a parameter to the Integration Component.

D. None of the above

Answer: D

3. Refer to the Exhibit.

Which variables are passed by value?

A. Simple variables passed from Publish Position to Web to a subprocess.

B. Simple variables passed from Open New Position to the Open Position service.

C. Complex variables passed from Publish Position to Web to a subprocess.

D. Complex variables passed from Open New Position to the Open Position service.

Answer: ABD

4. At the BPD level, a private variable and input variable can have the same name.

A. True

B. False

Answer: B

5. Given a process where in one step an agent enters a refund amount, and in the next step a manager either Approves it or Rejects the refund. In the approval step, the variable _refundAmount _will be mapped as:

A. private

B. input

C. output

D. output and private

E. input and private

Answer: B

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6. Given a process where in one step an agent enters a refund amount, and in the next step a manager either Approves it or Rejects the refund. In the approval step, the variable _approved_ will be mapped as:

A. private

B. input

C. output

D. output and private

E. input and private

Answer: C

7. if the activity "Rework" in a process is performed by both "Reworkers" and "Assembly Operators", then:

A. create a separate process for each and link the process back to the higher level process.

B. duplicate the activity in both the Reworker swimlane and in the Assembly Operator swimlane.

C. use a nested process in order to create two participant swimlanes for that activity and then assign the task to the first available participant.

D. choose the group that is ultimately responsible for the rework and if both parties are responsible, then create a swimlane that includes both participants.

Answer: D

8. When routing to "Lane Participant," the Task will be assigned to the Participant group defined for that swimlane.

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

9. Which statement is true regarding exclusive (XOR) gateways?

A. Only one outgoing sequence condition can be true.

B. Outgoing default condition is only met if none of the conditions are true.

C. Evaluation of subsequent conditions continues even after one condition is met.

D. Conditions are evaluated top to bottom as defined in the gateway's property tab.

Answer: A

10. The "tolerance interval" in the intermediate timer event is used to:

A. build in a certain level of tolerable inefficiency into the process

B. take into account weekends, holidays and other task downtimes

C. specify an additional delay if the work is in progress

D. specify an additional delay irrespective of whether the work is in progress or not

Answer: C

11. "Escalations" are used in WebSphere Lombardi Edition modeling to:

A. automate processes by using non-human tasks

B. add a level of sophistication to the process model

C. improve the process by solving problematic tasks

D. make sure metrics relating to process cycle times are met

Answer: D

12. Select the best practice(s) for naming variables and variable types from the list of best practices below.

A. Any variables passed in and out of a BPD should have the same name.

B. Names of variable types should be camel case (vacationStartDate).

C. Name the variables based on what specific data will be represented by the variable. (i.e. Don't use "date" for a vacation start date if there might ever be other dates in your process.)

D. Don't worry about capitalization. WebSphere Lombardi Edition is not case sensitive.

Answer: AC

13. How variables are named affect the initial display of labels in the Coach Designer.

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

14. Using our suggested naming convention, how should the following variable and variable type be named? The names will be displayed like this: variable name (variable type name)

A. fullName (FullName)

B. FullName (fullName)

C. Full Name (fullName)

D. full name (FullName)

Answer: A

15. What are some advantages of using complex data structures?

A. Simple variables allow for more authoring errors.

B. Simple variables are more involved to initialize than complex data structures.

C. Complex data structures are easier for business users to understand.

D. Complex structures exchange information with nested services and processes in less steps.

Answer: AD

 

Exam  :  IBM 000-051

      Title     :  Rational Developer for System z v7.6

       Version :  DEMO

http://www.test4actual.com/000-051.html

1. The Menu Manager feature lets a user create menus and actions related to subprojects and files. Actions can be created with a set of predefined substitution variables for interactive commands.

Which variable can be used to represent the host name or IP address of the system associated with a selected resource?

A.$systemhostname

B.$gethostname

C.$name

D.$fullname

ANSWER: A

2. To debug a program inside a local project on the z/OS Projects view, the program must be built with the "/DEBUG" link option and which other option?

A.the "ADATA" compiler option

B.the "LIST" compiler option

C.the "/TEST" compiler option

D.the "/OUT" link option

ANSWER: C

3. Rational Developer for System z has a set of published application programming interfaces (APIs) to make integration with third-party tools or systems possible.

Which API allows developers to perform operations such as copy, rename, and delete on host system files?

A.CARMA API

B.Remote Resource Access API

C.LPEX API

D.Service Flow Programming Interface

ANSWER: B

4. When creating a "DB2 for z/OS" database connection via the Data perspective, which type of driver does the database manager use to enable interaction with the host database?

A.ODBC driver

B.JDBC driver

C.C++ driver

D.MySQL driver

ANSWER: B

5. You can create a property group file at the system level so that it is available to all the users of that system when they connect to it. To do so, you must first create a properties configuration file (propertiescfg.properties).

What is the function of this file?

A.to define the default property values for users of Rational Developer for System z

B.to define the default property values, and which users can access them

C.to define the locations of the system property group and the locations of the default value files

D.to define the property values for the various host-based projects and subprojects

ANSWER: C

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6. What information does the Remote System Explorer (RSE) user log file "rsecomm.log" contain?

A.Datastore action logging

B.RSE's reading and writing of PDS member or a sequential data set, and the time stamp of each read and write

C.the RSE server's handling of commands from the client, and the communication logging of all services relying on RSE

D.standard output (stdout) and standard error output (stderr)

ANSWER: C

7. The TSO/ISPF Client Gateway uses a configuration file to create a valid environment to execute batch TSO and ISPF commands. Rational Developer for System z uses this environment to run some MVS based services. This configuration file is located in /etc/rdz/.

What is its name?

A.TSO.conf

B.rsed.envvars

C.ISPF.conf

D.ISPFCFG

ANSWER: C

8. In Rational Developer for System z, how do you customize the behavior and properties (such as the value of CODEPAGE, TIMEOUT, and SUBMITMETHOD) of JES Job Monitor?

A.edit the RSE configuration file "rsed.envvars"

B.edit the JES settings on the Remote Systems view

C.edit the client preferences found in Preferences > Remote Systems > z/OS > JES

D.edit the JES Job Monitor configuration file "FEJJCNFG"

ANSWER: D

9. The RSE lock daemon and the RSE server processes (RSE daemon, RSE thread pool, and RSE server) use the definitions specified in which RSE configuration file?

A.rsed.envvars

B.rsed.definition

C.rsecomm.properties

D.rsecomm.config

ANSWER: A

10. You can set varying tracing levels in the Preferences of Rational Developer for System z.

What does this Trace level setting allow you to do?

A.set the amount of trace detail generated for each plug-in

B.set the number of trace files stored for each plug-in

C.set the file size of the trace file generated

D.set the frequency of trace

ANSWER: A