CWNP EXAM

VCP-410 Exam
VMware Certified Professional on VI4
Exam Number/Code : VCP-410
Exam Name : VMware Certified Professional on VI4
Questions and Answers : 300 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-09-06

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VCP-410 braindumps
1. An ESX Administrator plans to install additional supported components on the ESX Server that would increase the memory requirements for the Service Console. Which ESX Server partition would also need to be increased during installation as a result?
A. /
B. vmfs3
C. swap
D. /boot
Answer: C
2. Which of the following tasks can be selected from the home page of an ESX Server (Choose Three)?
A. Download VMware vCenter Server
B. Browse Objects Managed by this Host
C. Browse Virtual Machines in this Host’s inventory
D. Browse Datastores in this Host’s inventory
E. Download VMware Web Access Client
Answer: ABD
3. When installing ESX 4.0, where is the Service Console file system located?
A. In a virtual disk on a local VMFS datastore
B. In a virtual disk on a local or shared VMFS datastore
C. On a local physical disk or on a mapped SAN LUN
D. On a local physical disk
Answer: A

VCP-310 Exam
VMware Certified Professional on VI3
Exam Number/Code : VCP-310
Exam Name : VMware Certified Professional on VI3
Questions and Answers : 203 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-09-06

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VCP-310 dumps
1. Which of the following products are part of the VMware Infrastructure 3 software suite?
A. VMware Virtual Desktop Manager
B. VMware Distributed Resource Scheduler
C. VMware Update Manager
D. VMware Site Recovery Manager
Answer: BC
2. A company decides to explore virtualization options for one of their departments. Their environment and requirements are:
(1) The users should be able to create their own virtual machines
(2) The users are running Windows XP on their desktops.
(3) Several virtual machines will be set up for each user and they should be able to run them all at the same time.
(4) The users will use the software to edit memory settings after the virtual machine is installed.
(5) Virtual machine performance and high availability are more important than keeping costs low.
(6) These machines WILL be run in production and WILL be used or managed remotely.
What is the correct solution based on these criteria?
A. give the users VMware VirtualCenter Client 2.x and grant them permission to create virtual machines on an ESX Server 3.x, with access to all necessary operating system ISOs
B. give the users VMware Workstation 6.x and all necessary operating system CDs or ISOs
C. give the users VMware Server 2.x and all necessary operating system CDs or ISOs
D. give the users VMware Player 2.x and all necessary operating system CDs or ISOs
Answer: A
3. How does ESX Server 3.x differ from VMware Server?
A. ESX Server 3.x supports 64-bit guest operating systems and VMware Server 2.x does not.
B. ESX Server 3.x supports VMware VirtualCenter and VMware Server 2.x does not.
C. ESX Server 3.x supports Intel Virtualization Technology (VT) and VMware Server 2.x does not.
D. ESX Server 3.x supports 4 processor Virtual SMP and VMware Server 2.x does not.
Answer: D

PW0-104 Exam
Wireless LAN Administration Exam
Exam Number/Code : PW0-104
Exam Name : Wireless LAN Administration Exam
Questions and Answers : 120 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-09-06

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PW0-104 study guide
1. Given: ABC Company’s network administrator was just asked to install a 5 GHz OFDM bridge link between two buildings. He connected a WLAN bridge with a 50-ohm output to a 50-ohm RF coaxial cable. He connected the other end of the RF coaxial cable to a 25-ohm, 6 dBi Yagi antenna.
What is the maximum VSWR between the WLAN bridge and the Yagi antenna?
A. 1.0:1
B. 1.1:1
C. 1.2:1
D. 1.5:1
E. 2.0:1
F. 1.0:2
Answer: E
2. As an RF wave propagates through space, the wave front experiences natural expansion. What is the detrimental effect of this expansion in a WLAN system?
A. Linear Diffusion Loss
B. Signal Attenuation
C. Transmission Obfuscation
D. Fresnel Zone Thinning
E. Azimuth Inflation
Answer: B
3. What factors affect the distance that an RF signal can be effectively received?
A. Transmitting station’s antenna type
B. Receiving station’s radio sensitivity
C. Fresnel zone blockage
D. Power over Ethernet (PoE) usage
E. Antenna connector type
F. Distance between access points
Answer: ABC

QQ0-401 Exam
SDI-Service Desk Foundation Qualification
Exam Number/Code : QQ0-401
Exam Name : SDI-Service Desk Foundation Qualification
Questions and Answers : 120 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-09-06

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QQ0-401 dump
1. When made by a customer, which comment, is most likely to indicate that a conflict is developing?
A. I am tired of my computer always being down.
B. I don’t understand what you mean.
C. I see what you are saying to me.
D. You need to slow down.
Answer: A
2. Why is it important for you to demonstrate confidence when dealing with others?
A. Demonstrating confidence establishes credibility with customers.
B. Demonstrating confidence increases first contact resolution.
C. Demonstrating confidence maximises talk time.
D. Demonstrating confidence minimises conflicts with customers.
Answer: A
3. What is a best practice for helping an emotional caller?
A. Ask the customer to talk about their personal problems.
B. Help the customer focus on the Incident and resolution.
C. Maintain a professional approach according to the SLA.
D. Move the conversation carefully on to general issues within the company.
Answer: B

SY0-201 Exam
CompTIA Security+(2008 Edition) Exam
Exam Number/Code : SY0-201
Exam Name : CompTIA Security+(2008 Edition) Exam
Questions and Answers : 448 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-09-06

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SY0-201 questions
1. corporation has employed a third-party company to perform black-box penetration on their network. The corporation will provide:
A. full access to the network, except user-created databases.
B. unrestricted approved access, provided that every action is logged.
C. a test user account, but the company performs the network footprinting.
D. no information regarding their topology or technologies.
Answer: D
2. A user was trying to update an open file but when they tried to access the file they were denied. Which of the following would explain why the user could not access the file?
A. Audit only access
B. Execute only access
C. Rights are not set correctly
D. Write only access
Answer: C
3. Which of the following organizational documentation describes how tasks or job functions should be conducted?
A. Standards
B. Guideline
C. Policy
D. Procedures
Answer: D

000-139 Exam
IBM Certified Specialist – IBM Rational AppScan, Standard Ed
Exam Number/Code : 000-139
Exam Name : IBM Certified Specialist – IBM Rational AppScan, Standard Ed
Questions and Answers : 52 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-09-06

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000-139 practice exam
1. How does an attacker exploit Web application vulnerabilities?
A. by hacking the firewall
B. by installing viruses on a users machine
C. by sending malicious HTTP requests
D. by sniffing the traffic between a user and the Web server
Answer: C
2. In which three areas does AppScan test for vulnerabilities?
A. the network layer, the web application, the web server
B. the operating system, the web application platform, the database
C. the web application, the web server, the web application platform
D. the web application platform, the network layer, the web server
Answer: C
3. Which type of vulnerability allows an attacker to browse files that shouldnt be accessible (e.g. *.bak, “Copy of”, *.inc, etc.) or pages restricted for users with higher privileges?
A. Insecure Cryptographic Storage
B. Injection Flaw
C. Failure to Restrict URL Access
D. Insecure Communication
Answer: C

000-730 Exam
DB2 9 Fundamentals
Exam Number/Code : 000-730
Exam Name : DB2 9 Fundamentals
Questions and Answers : 127 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-09-04

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000-730 guide
1. Which of the following is NOT true about XML columns?
A. Data can be retrieved by SQL.
B. Data can be retrieved by XQuery or XPath.
C. XML columns must be altered to accommodate additional parent and child relationships.
D. Access to any portion of an XML document can be direct, without reading the whole document.
Answer: C
2. Given the following two tables:
TAB1
C1 C2
__ __________
1 Antarctica
2 Africa
3 Asia
4 Australia
TAB2
CX CY
__ _____________
5 Europe
6 North America
7 South America
Which of the following SQL statements will insert all rows found in table TAB2 into table TAB1?
A. INSERT INTO tab1 SELECT cx, cy FROM tab2
B. INSERT INTO tab1 VALUES (tab2.cx, tab2.cy)
C. INSERT INTO tab1 VALUES (SELECT cx, cy FROM tab2)
D. INSERT INTO tab1 (c1, c2) VALUES (SELECT cx, cy FROM tab2)
Answer: A
3. A DRDA host database resides on a z/OS or an i5/OS system and listens on port 446. The TCP/IP address for this system is 19168.10.1 and the TCP/IP host name is myhost. Which of the following commands is required to update the local node directory so that a DB2 client can access this DRDA database?
A. CATALOG TCPIP NODE myhost REMOTE db2srv SERVER 446
B. CATALOG TCPIP NODE mydb2srv REMOTE myhost SERVER 446
C. CATALOG TCPIP NODE myhost REMOTE db2srv SERVER 192.168.10.1
D. CATALOG TCPIP NODE mydb2srv REMOTE myhost SERVER 192.168.10.1
Answer: B

000-918 Exam
System Administration for IBM Informix Dynamic Server V11
Exam Number/Code : 000-918
Exam Name : System Administration for IBM Informix Dynamic Server V11
Questions and Answers : 282 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-09-04

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000-918 study material
1. Click the Exhibit button.
exhibit Missing
In the exhibit, how does an IDS database administrator or programmer ensure that only committed data will be seen and that no locking errors will occur?
A. Change user 1 isolation level to dirty read.
B. Change user 2 isolation level to dirty read.
C. Change user 1 isolation level to committed read last committed.
D. Change user 2 isolation level to committed read last committed.
Answer: D
2. Click the Exhibit button.
Given the sqexplain output in the exhibit, which SQL statement will make the est_rows column accurate?
exhibit Missing
A. update statistics high for table
B. update statistics high for systables
C. update statistics high for table orders
D. update statistics high for table customer
Answer: A
3. A user wants to save SQL explain output to the file: /tmp/myexplain.out. Which syntax should be used?
A. set explain on file to /tmp/myexplain.out
B. set explain on file /tmp/myexplain.out
C. set explain file /tmp/myexplain.out
D. set explain file to /tmp/myexplain.out
Answer: D

000-934 Exam
IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.0 Implementation
Exam Number/Code : 000-934
Exam Name : IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.0 Implementation
Questions and Answers : 150 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-09-04

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000-934 Exam Objectives
1. Which option would be included in the lifecycle management design?
A. reconciliation schedule for all UNIX services
B. approval requirements for the Active Directory accounts
C. e-mail notification to the service owner when accounts are provisioned
D. e-mail notification requirements when a new IBM Tivoli Identity Manager identity is created with an HR feed
Answer: D
2. A custom adapter can support which basic operations for user accounts on the target system?
A. Add, Delete, Suspend, Restore, Clone
B. Add, Delete, Suspend, Restore, Modify
C. Add, Delete, Suspend, Restore, Modify, Search
D. Add, Delete, Suspend, Restore, Reconcile, Purge
Answer: C
3. Which choice is relevant to creating the IBM Tivoli Identity Manager (ITIM) system architecture document?
A. whether to perform ITIM database backup weekly or daily
B. whether to allow the End User View holders to delete accounts or not delete accounts
C. whether to implement the RBAC (role-based access control) model in ITIM or the DAC (discretionary access control) model in ITIM
D. whether to install ITIM as an all-in-one installation or to separate the application server, directory server, and database server components
Answer: D

000-891 Exam
IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.1
Exam Number/Code : 000-891
Exam Name : IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.1
Questions and Answers : 140 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-09-04

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000-891 practice exam
1. Which security token may carry user attribute information as part of the defined token format?
A. Kerberos
B. RACF Token
C. SAML Assertion
D. Username Token
Answer: C
2. RBTelco is a large multinational company that outsources health care benefit management to RBBenefits. RBTelco employees access RBBenefits resources through an authenticate-able account at each company. RBBenefit and RBTelco will use SAML V1.0.
Which IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business (ITAMeb) and IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager (ITFIM) components are required to be installed at RBTelco?
A. TAMeb Runtime, TAMeb Policy Server, TAMeb Authorization Server, TAMeb WebSEAL Server, ITFIM Runtime and Management Services, ITFIM Management Console
B. TAMeb Runtime, TAMeb Policy Server, TAMeb Authorization Server, TAMeb WebSEAL Server, ITFIM Runtime and Management Services, ITFIM Management Console, WebSEAL Application Developer Kit
C. TAMeb Runtime, TAMeb Policy Server, TAMeb Authorization Server, TAMeb Java Runtime Environment, TAMeb WebSEAL Server, ITFIM Runtime and Management Services, ITFIM Management Console, WebSEAL Application Developer Kit
D. TAMeb Runtime, TAMeb Policy Server, TAMeb Authorization Server, TAMeb Java Runtime Environment, TAMeb WebSEAL Server, ITFIM Runtime and Management Services, ITFIM Management Console, ITFIM Demonstration Scenarios, WebSEAL Application Developer Kit
Answer: A
3. Click the Exhibit button.
You want to use TCPMON between the two WS-Provisioning Service instances.
How do you configure the endpoint of the partner WS-Provisioning service (i.e., the destination of step 3) so that TCPMON can be used?
A. modify the ITFIMClientIDI.properties file
B. modify the ITFIMClientScript.constants file
C. use the IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager Console to modify a custom runtime parameter
D. use the WebSphere Application Server Administration Console to modify the WS-Provisioning application properties
Answer: C

000-443 Exam
db2 content manager v8.3
Exam Number/Code : 000-443
Exam Name : db2 content manager v8.3
Questions and Answers : 128 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-09-04

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000-443 Preparation tool
1. What is the default duration of a security token generated to access a resource manager object?
A. 1 day
B. 2 days
C. 2 hours
D. 30 minutes
Answer: B
2. The migrator process has been set to check for data to migrate at intervals of 15 minutes between 8:30 PM and 4:30 AM. Sometimes the migration process takes about 20 minutes to complete. What happens when the last migration process commences?
A. The migrator will start logging errors as soon as it hits 4:30 AM.
B. The migrator will stop if it runs past 4:30 AM and resume at 8:30 PM from where it stopped.
C. The migrator will complete the last migration process and will stop until the next cycle begins.
D. The migrator will stop at 4:30 AM and an optional flag can be set to email an administrator of a stalled migration.
Answer: C
3. Additional privileges were added to a privilege set associated with a user group, which has been assigned to an ACL. However, a user in this user group does not see these privileges. Which of the following is a possible reason for this outcome?
A. The user belongs to a subdomain.
B. The privilege was added to a different privilege set.
C. The user is not a Content Manager system administrator.
D. An ACL cannot grant more access than a user has in the privilege set associated with their user ID.
Answer: D

000-217 Exam
Test 217, WebSphere Commerce V6.0. Application Development
Exam Number/Code : 000-217
Exam Name : Test 217, WebSphere Commerce V6.0. Application Development
Questions and Answers : 52 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-09-03

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000-217 Study Guides
1. What are the two key elements when defining a view in the struts configuration file?
A. access-mappings
B. action-mappings
C. global-forwards
D. global-mappings
E. view-mappings
Answer: BC
2. Dynamic caching is enabled in WebSphere Application Server and some JSP fragments are being displayed twice when the cached page is served. How should this be prevented?
A. Ensure that <property name=”do-not-consume”>true</property> is equal to true for the fragment in the cache configuration file.
B. Set flush=true on every <jsp:include> in the file to be cached.
C. Surround all <c:import> tags with <% out.flush(); %>.
D. Use static includes for fragments.
Answer: C
3. A developer wants to display product prices in more than one currency. How can the developer enable dual display of currencies?
A. Update the COUNTERVALUECURR field of the CURCVLIST table to the value currency that is needed to be displayed.
B. Update the CURRSTR field of the CURLIST table to the value currency that is needed to be displayed.
C. Use an e-marketing spot in the jsp to display pricing in more than one currency.
D. Use the price range feature of Accelerator to set up dual currency pricing.
Answer: A

000-316 Exam
IBM WebSphere Integration Developer V6.1
Exam Number/Code : 000-316
Exam Name : IBM WebSphere Integration Developer V6.1
Questions and Answers : 114 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-09-03

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000-316 exam questions
1. In a mediation flow, the call out Response node’s fail terminal is not wired and an unmodeled fault is received. What is the expected behavior of the mediation flow?
A. A mediation runtime exception will occur.
B. A mediation business exception will occur.
C. A mediation configuration exception will occur.
D. Since the fail terminal is not wired, the mediation flow stops execution without raising any exception.
Answer: A
2. An integration developer needs to access an HTTP SOAP header in a mediation flow. How should an XPath expression begin so it can access the HTTP SOAP header?
A. /headers/SOAPHeader
B. /SMOHeader/SOAPHeader
C. /headers/Envelope/Header
D. /SMOHeader/Envelope/Header
Answer: A
3. A business rule applies a graduated discount rate based on an input customer’s total purchases over the past year. How should the business rule be implemented?
A. As a rule set
B. As a rule group
C. As a decision table
D. As a business rule bean
Answer: A

000-289 Exam
Test289, IBM WebSphere DataPower SOA Appln. Firmware V3.6.1
Exam Number/Code : 000-289
Exam Name : Test289, IBM WebSphere DataPower SOA Appln. Firmware V3.6.1
Questions and Answers : 76 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-09-03

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000-138 Exam
Rational RequisitePro
Exam Number/Code : 000-138
Exam Name : Rational RequisitePro
Questions and Answers : 64 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-09-03

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000-138 Practice Questions
1. Where is the password information stored for LDAP-enabled users?
A. the LDAP directory
B. RequisitePro
C. the LDAP Config.ini file
D. the Project.RQL file
Answer: A
2. Which statement is true about cutting and pasting a requirement in a requirements document?
A. A user cannot cut and paste a requirement in a requirements document.
B. A user can use the Cut and Paste commands in the Microsoft Word Edit menu to cut and paste a requirement in a requirements document.
C. A user should not use the Cut and Paste commands in the Microsoft Word Edit menu to cut and paste a requirement in a requirements document.
D. A user can use either the Cut and Paste commands in the Microsoft Word Edit menu or the Cut and Paste commands in the Microsoft Word RequisitePro Requirements menu to cut and paste requirements in a requirements document.
Answer: C
3. Which two methods can be used to deploy RequisitePro for geographically distributed teams?(Choose two.)
A. install RequisitePro on a supported host environment
B. save requirements documents as Word documents to mail them to distributed team members for editing
C. use RequisiteWeb for requirements management
D. replicate RequisitePro database at multiple sites
Answer: AC

NS0-530 Exam
NCIE – DataFort Security Exam
Exam Number/Code : NS0-530
Exam Name : NCIE – DataFort Security Exam
Questions and Answers : 118 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-09-03

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NS0-530 TESTING ENGINE
1. In x firmware, how many virtual storage devices (targets) and virtual client hosts (initiators) can be attached to a single FC525 model DataFort?
A. 1 virtual storage device and 8 virtual client hosts
B. 7 virtual storage device and 7 virtual client hosts
C. 8 virtual storage device and 8 virtual client hosts
D. 8 virtual storage device and 32 virtual client hosts
E. 16 virtual storage device and 128 virtual client hosts
Answer: B
2. Which two can authorize Key Translation? (Choose two.)
A. the source DataFort administrator
B. the destination DataFort administrator
C. the LKM administrator
D. a quorum of Recovery Cards and passwords
E. a Recovery Key Archive file
Answer: DE
3. Which is a correct System Card replacement procedure for SAN 2.x?
A. zeroize DataFort and restore with an initialized System Card and a recent configdb using a quorum of Recovery Cards
B. zeroize DataFort and join an existing cluster with an uninitialized System Card and a quorum of Recovery Cards
C. insert an uninitialized System Card into the DataFort and perform a System Card replacement using a quorum of Recovery Cards
D. insert an initialized System Card from an existing cluster member and perform a System Card replacement using a quorum of Recovery Cards
Answer: B